BCEN CEN Practice Question

A 28-year-old female with a history of epilepsy presents to the ED with ongoing seizure activity for the past 45 minutes. She has received two doses of lorazepam without resolution. Her vital signs are: BP 160/90, HR 120, RR 22, SpO2 92% on room air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Perform rapid sequence intubation

  • Administer fosphenytoin or phenytoin

  • Initiate propofol infusion

  • Obtain emergent CT scan of the head

BCEN CEN
Neurological Emergencies
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