BCEN CEN Practice Question

A 62-year-old patient on peritoneal dialysis presents with cloudy dialysate, diffuse abdominal pain, and low-grade fever. Initial analysis shows dialysate white blood cell count of 150/mm³ with 60% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Start empiric antibiotic therapy immediately

  • Discontinue peritoneal dialysis and initiate hemodialysis

  • Increase frequency of dialysate exchanges

  • Wait for peritoneal fluid culture results before starting antibiotics

BCEN CEN
Gastrointestinal, Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical
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