BCEN CEN Practice Test
Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing: Certified Emergency Nurse
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BCEN CEN Information
BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) Exam
The Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) certification, offered by the Board of Certification for Emergency Nursing (BCEN), is a credential for registered nurses (RNs) specializing in emergency care. It validates expertise in handling critical and urgent medical situations in emergency departments, trauma centers, and other acute care settings.
Exam Overview
The CEN exam consists of 175 multiple-choice questions, of which 150 are scored, and 25 are unscored pretest questions. Candidates have three hours to complete the test. The exam fee is $370 for non-members and $230 for Emergency Nurses Association (ENA) members. It is administered through computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centers and can also be taken via live remote proctoring.
Exam Content
The CEN exam assesses knowledge across various emergency nursing topics. These include cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, obstetrical, and psychiatric emergencies. It also covers trauma, toxicological emergencies, environmental and communicable diseases, and disaster preparedness. Candidates are tested on professional issues, including ethical considerations, legal responsibilities, and evidence-based practice.
Who Should Take This Exam?
This certification is ideal for RNs working in emergency care settings who want to demonstrate their expertise and commitment to the field. While there are no formal prerequisites, BCEN recommends at least two years of emergency nursing experience before taking the exam. The CEN credential is recognized by hospitals and healthcare organizations as a mark of advanced competency in emergency nursing.
How to Prepare
Candidates should review the CEN Exam Handbook provided by BCEN and study the CEN Candidate Handbook for a detailed breakdown of topics. Many nurses use practice exams to assess their knowledge and identify weak areas. BCEN offers online review courses, and various nursing organizations provide study guides and exam prep courses. Hands-on experience in emergency settings is also crucial for success.
Summary
The BCEN Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam is a widely recognized credential for emergency nurses seeking to validate their skills and knowledge. It is an important certification for RNs looking to advance their careers in emergency care and demonstrate their expertise in handling critical medical situations.
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Free BCEN CEN Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Cardiovascular EmergenciesRespiratory EmergenciesNeurological EmergenciesGastrointestinal, Genitourinary, Gynecology, and ObstetricalMental Health EmergenciesMedical EmergenciesMusculoskeletal and Wound EmergenciesMaxillofacial and Ocular EmergenciesEnvironment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable DiseasesProfessional Issues
A 10-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after being pulled from a swimming pool. The child is unconscious and not breathing. What is the BEST initial intervention?
Start rescue breathing
Initiate chest compressions
Begin active rewarming measures
Perform abdominal thrusts to expel water
Answer Description
The correct answer is to initiate chest compressions. In a submersion injury, the primary concern is hypoxia. The 2020 American Heart Association guidelines emphasize starting with chest compressions in cardiac arrest situations, even in drowning victims. This approach ensures immediate blood flow to vital organs, particularly the brain. While rescue breaths are important in drowning cases, chest compressions take precedence to quickly restore circulation. Warming the patient is important but secondary to initiating CPR. Attempting to remove water from the lungs through abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) is no longer recommended as it delays CPR and may increase the risk of aspiration.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are chest compressions and why are they crucial in cardiac arrest situations?
What are the signs of hypoxia and how is it related to drowning incidents?
Why is the Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts) not recommended in drowning cases?
Which of the following best describes preterm labor?
Labor occurring after 42 weeks of gestation
Labor that begins after 37 weeks but before 42 weeks of pregnancy
Labor that develops within 24 hours post-delivery
Labor that occurs before 37 weeks of pregnancy
Answer Description
Preterm labor is defined as labor that begins before the completion of 37 weeks of pregnancy. It is critical for healthcare providers to correctly identify and manage preterm labor to prevent complications. The other options describe labor at different gestational ages or a condition related to the postpartum period, which do not align with the core characteristics of preterm labor.
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What are the common signs of preterm labor?
What are the risks associated with preterm labor?
How is preterm labor managed in a clinical setting?
Which symptom is most typically associated with retinal detachment?
Photophobia
Gradual blurring of vision
Sudden appearance of floaters and a shadow over vision
Intense eye pain and redness
Answer Description
The perception of a sudden increase in floaters or spots and the appearance of a shadow or curtain descending over the field of vision are hallmark symptoms of retinal detachment. This condition involves the separation of the retina from its underlying supportive tissue, which disrupts its function and can lead to vision loss. The other options, while potentially indicative of other eye issues, are not primarily associated with retinal detachment.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are floaters, and why do they appear with retinal detachment?
What is the shadow or curtain effect in retinal detachment?
What other conditions can cause similar symptoms to retinal detachment?
A patient presenting with pulmonary edema due to a rapid ascent to high altitude will have an improvement in symptoms with immediate administration of a beta-agonist bronchodilator.
Correct
Incorrect
Answer Description
High altitude can lead to noncardiac pulmonary edema, known as High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE). The primary treatment for HAPE is descent to a lower altitude and supplemental oxygen. A beta-agonist bronchodilator is a treatment for conditions such as asthma or COPD, but it is not the primary intervention for HAPE.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main symptoms of High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)?
What is the role of a beta-agonist bronchodilator in respiratory conditions?
Why is descent to a lower altitude considered a primary treatment for HAPE?
An emergency nurse is caring for a patient who refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs, despite it being medically necessary. What is the BEST course of action for the nurse?
Proceed with the transfusion as it is medically necessary
Respect the patient's wishes and explore alternative treatments
Attempt to convince the patient to accept the transfusion
Document the patient's refusal and take no further action
Answer Description
The correct answer is to respect the patient's wishes and explore alternative treatments. This aligns with the ethical principle of patient autonomy, which is a fundamental aspect of healthcare ethics. Even when a treatment is medically necessary, competent adult patients have the right to refuse treatment based on their personal beliefs. The nurse's role is to ensure the patient is fully informed about the consequences of their decision and to explore alternative treatments that may be acceptable to the patient. While involving the ethics committee is a good step, it is not the immediate best action. Attempting to convince the patient against their beliefs or proceeding with the transfusion without consent would be unethical and potentially illegal. Documenting the patient's refusal is important but is not the primary action in this situation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does patient autonomy mean in healthcare?
What are alternative treatments in the context of refusing blood transfusions?
What is the role of the ethics committee in healthcare decisions?
A nurse is evaluating a patient who has sustained a thermal burn. During the initial assessment, what is the most appropriate action for managing the patient's wound?
Apply an antibiotic cream to the wound.
Remove any clothing that is not adhered to the wound.
Cool the burn with lukewarm water.
Apply ice directly to the burnt area.
Answer Description
Cooling the burn with lukewarm water is the recommended initial management technique for thermal burns. This method helps reduce the temperature of the burn site, alleviate pain, and limit the depth of the burn injury. Using ice can cause vasoconstriction and potentially further damage the tissue, which is not recommended. While an antibiotic cream could be useful later, it should not be the first method of wound management. Removing adhered clothing involves risk of further skin damage and should only be done under specific conditions where clothing is not fused with the skin.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is lukewarm water recommended for cooling burns instead of ice or ice water?
What steps should be taken after cooling a burn with lukewarm water?
When is it appropriate to use antibiotic cream for a burn?
The Emergency Department is required to have a policy in place to provide interpretive services for non-English speaking patients at all times.
False
True
Answer Description
This statement is correct because providing interpretive services is a matter of adhering to patients' rights and ensuring effective communication. Hospitals must comply with federal regulations, including Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which prohibits discrimination based on national origin, which includes language. Not having appropriate language access services could lead to misunderstandings, misdiagnosis, and inappropriate treatment. Interpretive services must be offered to eliminate language barriers for the delivery of appropriate and effective care.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are interpretive services?
What does Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 entail?
Why is effective communication important in emergency care?
Corneal abrasions always require antibiotic ointment and an occlusive eye patch for treatment.
False
True
Answer Description
While antibiotic ointment may be used to prevent infection in the case of corneal abrasions, the use of an occlusive eye patch is no longer universally recommended for all types of corneal abrasions. Current treatment approaches consider factors such as the size and location of the abrasion, patient comfort, and the risk of infection. Most uncomplicated corneal abrasions heal within 24 to 48 hours with proper care, which may include pain management and monitoring for signs of infection rather than the use of an occlusive eye patch.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What factors influence the treatment of corneal abrasions?
Why is the occlusive eye patch not recommended for all corneal abrasions?
What are the signs of infection in a corneal abrasion?
What is a characteristic symptom of a patient presenting with diverticulitis?
Severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain
Lower left quadrant abdominal pain
High fever with no abdominal pain
Generalized abdominal swelling
Answer Description
Lower left quadrant abdominal pain is a typical symptom of diverticulitis, reflecting the common location of the inflamed diverticula in the sigmoid colon. In contrast, symptoms like severe right lower quadrant pain or generalized abdominal swelling are more indicative of conditions such as appendicitis or ascites respectively.
Ask Bash
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What are diverticula?
What other symptoms might indicate diverticulitis?
How is diverticulitis diagnosed?
Patients with a spontaneous abortion often present with closed cervical os.
Patients with a spontaneous abortion often present with bleeding, cramping, and an open cervical os.
Patients with a spontaneous abortion often present with closed cervical os.
Answer Description
This statement is incorrect. Patients with a spontaneous abortion, also known as miscarriage, typically present with bleeding, cramping, and an open cervical os. An open cervical os allows the passage of products of conception, which is characteristic of a miscarriage that has already occurred or is in progress. Conversely, a threatened abortion may present with vaginal bleeding, but the cervical os remains closed, and the pregnancy may continue without incident.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a spontaneous abortion?
What does it mean for the cervical os to be open?
What is the difference between a spontaneous abortion and a threatened abortion?
Administering a beta-agonist via nebulizer is an appropriate first-line intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation.
True
False
Answer Description
Beta-agonists, such as albuterol, are the primary treatment for acute asthma exacerbations. They work by relaxing bronchial smooth muscles and opening the airways, making them an appropriate first-line intervention when delivered via nebulizer or inhaler to provide rapid relief from respiratory distress.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are beta-agonists and how do they work?
What are the advantages of using a nebulizer for administering beta-agonists?
What other treatments are typically used for acute asthma exacerbations?
EKG findings in a patient with acute pericarditis typically include ST-segment elevation and PR-segment depression across multiple leads.
True
False
Answer Description
The correct response is True. In acute pericarditis, electrocardiogram (EKG) findings commonly include diffuse ST-segment elevations and PR-segment depressions across multiple leads, which are hallmark signs helping in the diagnosis. These changes reflect the inflammation of the pericardium. It is critical for emergency nurses to recognize these EKG patterns for appropriate diagnosis and timely intervention.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key EKG changes associated with acute pericarditis?
What causes ST-segment elevation in acute pericarditis?
Why is it important for emergency nurses to recognize EKG changes in pericarditis?
Which type of injury is predominantly concerned when referring to obstetric trauma?
Vaginal tears
Ectopic pregnancy
Placental abruption
Preeclampsia
Answer Description
Obstetric trauma specifically refers to injuries that occur to the maternal structures as a direct result of childbirth. This involves trauma during the labor and delivery process, including vaginal tears or lacerations, uterine rupture, and pelvic fractures. Understanding these specific injuries helps in appropriate treatment and management to prevent further complications. The incorrect options, while also concerning conditions related to pregnancy, do not specifically categorize under the injuries caused by the childbirth process itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are vaginal tears and how do they occur during childbirth?
What are the common complications associated with obstetric trauma?
How does obstetric trauma differ from other complications during pregnancy?
A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident. He complains of severe pain in his lower leg that is out of proportion to the injury and is not relieved by opioid analgesics. Physical examination reveals a swollen and tense anterior compartment of the leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer additional analgesics
Measure intracompartmental pressures
Reassess the patient in several hours
Immediate surgical consultation for fasciotomy
Answer Description
The most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition is an immediate surgical consultation for fasciotomy. This patient is showing signs of acute compartment syndrome, which is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment that can impair circulation and cause muscle and nerve damage. Immediate intervention is critical to release the pressure and prevent permanent damage. Measuring compartment pressures might support the diagnosis but does not address the urgency of surgical intervention. Administering additional analgesia might help in managing pain but does not treat the underlying compartment syndrome. Reassessment in several hours could lead to worsening of the condition and is inappropriate given the current signs and symptoms.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is acute compartment syndrome?
What is a fasciotomy?
How do you diagnose acute compartment syndrome?
A 42-year-old male presents with hypotension (BP 85/50), tachycardia (HR 120), and warm, flushed skin. Labs show elevated liver enzymes and low platelets. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of his shock state?
Anaphylaxis
Hypovolemic shock from internal bleeding
Neurogenic shock
Septic shock
Answer Description
The correct answer is anaphylaxis. This patient's presentation is consistent with distributive shock, characterized by vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. The warm, flushed skin is a key indicator of vasodilation. While septic shock can present similarly, the rapid onset and combination of hypotension with elevated liver enzymes and thrombocytopenia are more indicative of anaphylaxis, particularly if there's a history of allergen exposure.
Neurogenic shock typically presents with bradycardia due to loss of sympathetic tone, not tachycardia. Cardiogenic shock usually presents with cool, clammy skin due to poor perfusion, unlike the warm skin in this case. Hypovolemic shock from internal bleeding might cause elevated liver enzymes if there's hepatic congestion, but wouldn't typically cause thrombocytopenia this quickly.
It's important to note that shock states can have overlapping features, and a thorough history and physical examination are crucial for accurate diagnosis. In this case, the combination of distributive shock features with specific lab abnormalities points most strongly to anaphylaxis.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
What is distributive shock and how does it differ from other types of shock?
Why do elevated liver enzymes and low platelets occur in anaphylaxis?
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