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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

As the IT manager, you are responsible for verifying the disaster recovery plan's effectiveness. You decide to run backup systems with real data and workloads to validate performance without interrupting the production environment. Which testing method should you select?

  • Simulation testing

  • Tabletop exercise

  • Failover testing

  • Parallel processing

Question 2 of 15

A company is implementing multifactor authentication for their VPN access. Which of the following would be considered the BEST 'something you have' factor?

  • A smartphone with a biometric lock.

  • A security token generating one-time codes.

  • An SMS text message sent to the user's phone.

  • A password written down on a piece of paper.

Question 3 of 15

Nation-state actors often engage in attacks that aim to disrupt the services of another country's critical infrastructure.

  • False

  • True

Question 4 of 15

Minor configuration adjustments to software applications do not need to be documented or reviewed through the change management process.

  • This statement is false; even minor configurations need to be reviewed and documented through the change management process.

  • This statement is true; minor configuration adjustments can be implemented directly without review through the change management process.

Question 5 of 15

What type of access control restricts user access to systems based on the current time?

  • Role-based access controls

  • Time-of-day restrictions

  • Least privilege

  • Attribute-based access controls

Question 6 of 15

What is a key activity performed as part of security monitoring to identify unauthorized actions within a network?

  • Reviewing security logs

  • Modifying access control lists

  • Deploying security patches

  • Installing antivirus software

Question 7 of 15

A screened subnet is intended to act as an isolated network segment separating a private network from untrusted external networks.

  • False

  • True

Question 8 of 15

An organization wants to implement a system where users authenticate once and gain access to multiple related systems without re-entering credentials. What authentication method should they deploy?

  • Federated Identity Management

  • Single Sign-On

  • Biometric Authentication

  • Multifactor Authentication

Question 9 of 15

During a scheduled change to implement a major software update, which of the following will BEST ensure that any unexpected issues can be remediated without affecting continued operations?

  • Scheduling an appropriate maintenance window

  • Identifying a clear ownership

  • Having a detailed backout plan

  • Conducting a thorough stakeholder analysis

Question 10 of 15

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization to ensure ongoing effective security compliance for international data protection regulations?

  • Limiting data access to a few key employees

  • Implementing a strong password policy across the organization

  • Conducting regular internal and external compliance audits

  • Encrypting all data stored on the organization's servers

Question 11 of 15

Following the detection of aberrant behavior on a critical server that correlates with a known vulnerability alert, what immediate action should an analyst take to best mitigate the risk while preserving the ability to investigate the incident?

  • Configure the surveillance tools to collect more granular information for a potential forensics analysis.

  • Patch the server immediately with the latest updates available for the suspected vulnerability.

  • Isolate the server by moving it to a quarantine network.

  • Examine audit trails and security event log entries to identify any indicators of compromise.

Question 12 of 15

Load balancing distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, while clustering primarily ensures redundancy and high availability.

  • False

  • True

Question 13 of 15

Upon discovering a data breach involving unauthorized access to the customer records system, what is the PRIMARY action the security team should focus on according to standard security protocols?

  • Immediately isolate affected systems to stop the spread of the breach.

  • Notify the company's legal team and prepare for public disclosure.

  • Prioritize the review of security logs to trace the origin of the attack.

  • Start documenting the details of the breach and response actions taken.

Question 14 of 15

When an employee leaves the organization, the employee’s data is required to be maintained for a specific period of time. In what document within the company would this requirement be specified?

  • Retention policy

  • COOP

  • BCP

  • DRP

Question 15 of 15

A security analyst notices a series of requests on a company's web server logs. Each request tries to retrieve different paths that are not commonly accessed, and all the requests come from one external network address within a brief time window. Which of the following best describes the intent of these requests?

  • A misconfigured automatic task on the server

  • Reconnaissance by an attacker attempting to discover unlinked content or vulnerabilities

  • Execution of client-side scripts from a user's web browser

  • A user navigating the company's public website pages