CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
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Which of the following is a physical control designed to allow visibility and detection of unauthorized entry while limiting the potential of physical confrontations?
Surveillance cameras
Keypad door locks
Mantrap
Bollards
Answer Description
Surveillance cameras are a common physical control used to provide visibility into the security of premises, allowing the detection of unauthorized or unusual activity without engaging in physical confrontations. They act as both a deterrent and a means to gather evidence. Bollards are designed to stop vehicles, not for surveillance purposes. Keypad door locks are access controls but do not necessarily provide visibility or detection of unauthorized entry. A mantrap controls access to secure areas but generally does not provide visibility of the area beyond its confines.
Ask Bash
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What are the main benefits of using surveillance cameras for security?
How do surveillance cameras support law enforcement investigations?
What are the limitations of surveillance cameras in physical security?
When using a cloud service provider, which matrix is typically used to delineate the security responsibilities held by the customer versus the service provider?
Shared Responsibility Model
Cloud Control Matrix
Service Level Agreement Matrix
Cloud Security Alliance Matrix
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Shared Responsibility Model.' This model is essential in cloud computing as it clearly outlines what security controls are the responsibility of the cloud service provider and what controls are the responsibility of the customer. Understanding this division is key to maintaining security in a cloud environment.
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What is the Shared Responsibility Model?
Why is understanding the Shared Responsibility Model important?
What are some common misconceptions about the Shared Responsibility Model?
You are working as a cybersecurity analyst for a 3rd party contractor. You have been brought in by an organization who believes they were hacked by a malicious actor. Their internal security team has hired you to determine the impact of the unauthorized access. At the time of the intrusion there were 5 servers online: DEV_APP_001, PRD_APP_002, PRD_DB_008, STG_DB_004 and FINANCE_009. What step should you take to begin the analysis?
Create a snapshot backup and then reformat each server
Begin analyzing each server after prioritizing them based on the data stored on each server
Begin hardening all servers immediately before the impact analysis starts
Create a new server running Kali Linux and make necessary firewall changes to allow it to access all the listed servers
Answer Description
You are hired to do an analysis on the systems to determine the impact of a malicious actor. Hardening and wiping the servers is outside of the scope of this analysis, but may be a recommended next step based on your findings. The logical step is to determine which servers are the most critical based on the data hosted on them, and begin analyzing them one-by-one in order of most important/critical data.
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What does it mean to prioritize servers based on data importance?
What is the role of a cybersecurity analyst in an incident response?
Why is hardening servers not the first step in impact analysis?
You are a security analyst and have networking monitoring solutions in place to detect strange or potentially malicious traffic. One of these solutions has sent an alert saying it detected outgoing network traffic from the company's network that was routing to a well-known malicious endpoint. Of the following options which is the most likely to be the cause of this traffic?
A user has attached confidential materials to an outgoing email
A colleague on your team is conducting a pentest
An infected server or user machine is attempting to contact a command-and-control server
A hacker is probing the company network from the outside
Answer Description
Some Malware will attempt to contact a Command-and-Control (C2) server or network to let the creators of the malware know it has infected a target. The malware will then be given commands remotely from the C2 server to steal data, infect more hosts or begin monitoring the infected device. The act of calling a C2 server is also called a beacon. The communication with known C2 addresses is a common sign that an infection has occurred within a network. One common use of this type of Malware is for a botnet. The C2 server may for example then send a command to all infected devices to initiate a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack (this is just one example).
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What is a command-and-control server?
What is malware and how does it infect systems?
What is a beacon in the context of cybersecurity?
During an audit it is identified that a host being used for FTP has additional unused ports open. The server is listening on 21, 20, 43, 80 and 3389. Your boss has tasked you to close the unused ports. Which ports should remain open?
80
20, 3389
20, 21
3389
43
43, 80
Answer Description
FTP uses ports 20 and 21, so those should be left open and the others should be closed. Note: The question asks which should REMAIN open, not which should be closed.
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What are the specific functions of ports 20 and 21 for FTP?
Why are the other ports (43, 80, and 3389) not needed for FTP?
What is the importance of closing unused ports from a security perspective?
What term describes a collection of common attributes that are used to categorize and compare vulnerabilities?
Vulnerability indexing
Vulnerability scoring
Vulnerability classification
Vulnerability enumeration
Answer Description
Vulnerability classification is a systematic process of sorting vulnerabilities into categories. This helps in understanding the nature of the vulnerability, its potential impact, and the methods for mitigation. It allows for an organized approach to prioritize vulnerabilities for remediation efforts.
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What are some common categories used in vulnerability classification?
How does vulnerability classification help in remediation?
What is the difference between vulnerability classification and vulnerability scoring?
A financial institution is implementing a policy that allows employees to use their personal smartphones for work-related tasks. The institution wants to ensure that company-specific information and configurations can be remotely removed from these smartphones when an employee terminates employment, while preserving the employee's personal data and apps. Which feature should the company look for in a software solution that allows for the central management of mobile devices?
Encryption
Full wipe
Remote locking
Selective wipe
Answer Description
A feature known as a 'selective wipe' or 'corporate wipe' is designed for the scenario presented. It allows an organization to remove only the data and configurations that pertain to the company, preserving the personal information of the user. This is critical for organizations that allow the use of personal devices for work, to manage the risk associated with data retention when employees leave. A 'full wipe' would erase all data from the device, which affects personal information and therefore is not suitable. 'Remote locking' secures a device against unauthorized use, but it doesn't address the removal of data. 'Encryption' secures data but does not offer a method for selective removal of company data upon employee departure.
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What is a selective wipe?
What are the risks of not using a selective wipe?
How does mobile device management (MDM) help with a selective wipe?
During an audit as a third party security consultant you are told that the organization being audited conducts an exercise annually during which prominent IT staff and the security team gather in a meeting room and discuss how they would handle various security incidents and disaster scenarios. This exercise is then used to update any policies and playbooks. What type of exercise are they describing?
DR Planning
Incident Response Planning (IRP)
Business Impact Exercise (BIE)
Dungeons and Dragons (DND)
Tabletop Exercise
Answer Description
In a tabletop exercise the key staff of an organization gather and discuss their actions during an incident (security incident, disaster, etc.). The staff is sometimes organized into blue and red teams (attackers and defenders). The exercise is used to train staff, promote collaboration and identify any weak spots in existing procedures and plans.
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What is a tabletop exercise?
What are blue and red teams?
Why are tabletop exercises important for organizations?
During a recent audit of security logs, an analyst discovers that certain log entries are sporadically missing over the past month. Understanding the importance of logs for detecting and troubleshooting anomalies, which of the following is the BEST explanation for the missing logs?
Log rotation configured without proper archiving
Log tampering by an unauthorized party
Scheduled maintenance activities
Time synchronization issues between servers
Answer Description
Log tampering is a deliberate act to manipulate or erase logs to hide unauthorized activities or to disrupt the integrity of the logging process. While logs can be lost due to technical issues such as configuration errors or system overload, sporadic and selective disappearance is more indicative of a deliberate effort to alter logs, which signifies that log tampering is the most likely explanation. Scheduled maintenance wouldn't selectively affect log entries, and time synchronization issues would cause discrepancies in timestamps rather than missing entries. Log rotation without archiving could lead to loss of older records, but would not usually result in sporadic missing entries.
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What are log tampering techniques?
Why is log integrity important in security?
What steps can be taken to prevent log tampering?
Which of the given options is a hashing algorithm that creates a 128 bit fixed output?
SHA1
SHA2
RIP128
MD5
Answer Description
MD5 (Message Digest 5) creates a 128 bit fixed output. SHA1 creates 160 bit outputs, SHA2 creates 256 bit outputs and RIP128 is a thing we made up that sounds pretty cool.
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What is MD5 and how is it used in security?
Why is hashing important in cybersecurity?
What are the differences between SHA-1 and SHA-2?
A company requires a solution to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys for their data encryption needs. This solution must be resistant to tampering and capable of integrating with existing hardware to provide secure boot, disk encryption, and digital rights management services. Which of the following options represents the BEST tool for this requirement?
Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
Secure Enclave
Key Management System
Hardware Security Module (HSM)
Answer Description
The correct answer is Hardware Security Module (HSM). An HSM is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys for strong authentication and provides cryptoprocessing. It is resistant to tampering and integrates with existing systems to facilitate secure boot, disk encryption, and digital rights management, fitting the company's needs. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is also dedicated hardware designed to protect hardware through integrated cryptographic keys, but it is typically used for securing individual computers rather than for managing keys across an organization. Secure Enclave provides hardware-based key management, primarily in mobile devices, and is less suitable for enterprise-scale key management and lacks the full functionality of an HSM. Lastly, Key Management System is a more general term for systems that manage cryptographic keys; however, it doesn't specify resistance to physical tampering or integration capabilities needed for secure boot or digital rights management, which an HSM provides.
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What are the main functions of a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
How does a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) differ from an HSM?
What is a Key Management System (KMS) and how does it relate to HSMs?
Responsibility for maintaining the security of the application layer in a cloud environment is always with the cloud service provider.
True
False
Answer Description
In most cloud service models, except for Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), the responsibility for securing the application layer falls to the customer, not the cloud service provider. For example, in Platform as a Service (PaaS) and Software as a Service (SaaS), while the provider maintains the infrastructure, the customer is responsible for the application itself. With IaaS, customers are even responsible for managing the operating system, storage, and deployed applications. Therefore, stating that the responsibility is always with the provider is incorrect as it varies depending on the service model and the shared responsibility agreement.
Ask Bash
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What are the different cloud service models, and how do they differ in terms of security responsibilities?
What is a shared responsibility model in cloud security?
Why is it important for customers to understand their responsibilities in cloud security?
You are taking a walk around the neighborhood. You see a sign in one of your neighbor’s unfenced yards that reads “No trespassing!” in large red letters. The sign is what type of control?
Compensating
Deterrent
Preventive
Corrective
Detective
Answer Description
A deterrent control is a control that simply deters from taking an action. The control in no way prevents the action from being taken but is only there to persuade not to. The other choices are other types of controls that serve other purposes.
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What are the different types of security controls?
Can you provide examples of deterrent controls?
How do deterrent controls fit into an overall security strategy?
Your organization is in the process of selecting a new vendor for cloud storage services. As part of this process, what should be conducted to evaluate and address the risks associated with the potential vendor prior to formalizing an agreement?
Right-to-Audit Clause
Business Impact Analysis
Vendor risk assessment
Due Diligence
Answer Description
Performing a vendor risk assessment is crucial as it helps an organization to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the risks associated with a potential vendor. The assessment can reveal security practices and compliance with industry standards, helping the organization understand the level of risk it may assume if entering into an agreement with the vendor. Orders such as 'Right-to-Audit Clause' and 'Due Diligence' are more focused on ongoing monitoring or the preparation for the audit process itself, though they are related to the broader scope of risk management. A 'Business Impact Analysis' is generally used for internal purposes to assess the impact of disruptions on the business and is less about evaluating third-party vendors.
Ask Bash
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What does a vendor risk assessment involve?
Why is it important to evaluate a vendor's compliance with industry standards?
What are other important factors to consider during a vendor risk assessment?
Which of the following options is a network device that can use VLANs to reduce collisions and the size of broadcast domains?
Packet Switcher
Switch
Hub
Firewall
Router
Packet Tracer
Answer Description
Switches automatically reduce collision domains by only transmitting data on the physical ports that are needed based on MAC addresses (as opposed to a Hub which broadcasts all data to all ports). When used with VLANs switches also reduce broadcast domains.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are VLANs and how do they work with switches?
How does a switch reduce collision domains compared to a hub?
What are the roles of the devices listed in the question, and why are they not correct answers?
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